Showing posts with label UGC-NTA-NET(JRF). Show all posts
Showing posts with label UGC-NTA-NET(JRF). Show all posts

Wednesday 9 December 2020

MH-Set

MAHARASHTRA STATE ELIGIBILITY TEST

MH-SET is a state eligibility test conducted by SPPU (Savitribai Phule Pune University) to determine the eligibility of candidates for the position of Assistant Professor in universities and colleges across Maharashtra and Goa state.

Subjects:-

The MH-SET would be conducted only in the following 32 subjects listed below. The candidates are supposed to appear for only one subject from the list.

Candidates have to appear for SET in the subject of their Post-Graduation only. However, candidates whose post-graduation subject is not covered in the list of subjects may appear in a related subject as per the guidelines of U.G.C. (NET).

Code       Subject

01           Marathi

02           Hindi

03           English

04           Sanskrit

05           Urdu

10           History

11           Economics

12           Philosophy

13           Psychology

14           Sociology

15           Political Science

16           Defense & Strategic Studies

17           Home Science

18           Library & Information Science

19           Journalism & Mass Communication

20           Social Work

21           Public Administration

30           Mathematical Sciences

31           Environmental Sciences

32           Physical Science

33           Chemical Sciences

34           Life Sciences

35           Earth , Atmospheric, Ocean & Planetary Science

36           Geography

37           Computer Science & Application

38           Electronics Science

39           Forensic Science

50           Commerce

51           Management

60           Law

70           Education

71           Physical Education

 

MH-SET Exam Centers

MH-SET  exam is conducted in 15 centers across Maharashtra & Goa, and the candidates can check the list of exam centers here.

  1. Panaji (GOA)
  2. Chandrapur
  3. Amravati
  4. Aurangabad
  5. Dhule
  6. Ahmednagar
  7. Kolhapur
  8. Mumbai
  9. Gadchiroli
  10. Nagpur
  11. Nanded
  12. Jalgon
  13. Nashik
  14. Solapur
  15. Pune


Scheme of Examination
a) The SET will be conducted in Objective Mode. The test will consist of two papers. both papers consist of only objective type questions and will be held on the same day in two separate sessions without break.
SessionPaperNumber of Multiple Choice QuestionsMarksDuration
First150 questions (all  compulsory)50 x 2 = 100 1 hour 
Second2100 questions (all  compulsory)100 x 2 = 200  2 hours 
 
b) Paper-I paper 1st consists of teaching/research, reasoning ability, comprehension, divergent thinking, and general awareness of the candidate.
The paper consists of fifty (50) objective-type compulsory questions of two marks each.
Paper 1st has 4 different sets of different codes.  The student has to ensure that the same Test Booklet Code is pre-printed and pre-shaded on the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet) of Paper I.
Paper-II paper 2nd consists of hundred (100) objective type compulsory questions, (except mathematical science) based on the subject selected by the candidate. Each question will carry equal marks (two marks). 
In Mathematical Science, a student has to attempt all questions (100) either from Sections I & II or from Sections I & III only. The OMR sheets of the candidates attempting questions from both sections II & III will be rejected.
Paper-II of each subject has 4 sets with different Test Booklet Codes. The student has to ensure that the same Test Booklet Code is pre-printed and pre-shaded on the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet) of Paper-II.

All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory, covering updated syllabi for all subjects except Life Sciences, Chemical Sciences, Physical Science, Mathematical Sciences, Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean & Planetary Science (For later subjects the syllabi of earlier Papers II & III together).

c) The candidate has to return the original OMR sheet to the invigilator at the conclusion of each session. However, the candidates are allowed to carry the Test Booklet of Paper- I and II along with a duplicate copy of OMR sheets (carbonless copy) on the conclusion of examination only.
d) There will be no negative marking.
e) The State EligibilityTest for Maharashtra & Goa states will be conducted based on syllabi of UGC.NET which have been updated and uploaded on the UGC website https://www.ugcnetonline.in with the link 'Updated syllabi' which will be applicable for SET. The updated syllabi are also available on the website http://setexam.unipune.ac.in

According to new guidelines of the newly updated syllabus -Paper II will contain 100 compulsory MCQs of two marks each from the subject selected by the candidate and the duration of this paper has been made as two hours (120 minutes). "
    The syllabi of subjects, Life Science, Chemical Science, Physical Science, Mathematical Science, Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean & Planetary Science will be as before. In these subjects, the syllabi of paper II and paper III shall now form the syllabus of paper II. Kindly ignore the instructions given at the top of the syllabi of these subjects. In addition, ignore the sample questions given at the bottom of the paper III syllabus of these subjects. Paper-II of these subjects will also contain 100 compulsory MCQs, of two marks each from the subject selected by the candidate and the duration of this paper has been made as two hours (120 minutes). As per UGC letter No.F.4-2/90(NET/SET Policy) dated 19th January 2019."
 
f) Re-Evaluation/Re-Checking of the result :
There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of the result. No correspondence in this regard shall be entertained

 Application fee 

  1. Open/general- Rs 800
  2. Other categories- Rs 650


ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA 
 
a) The candidates must have a Master’s Degree recognized by U.G.C., in a subject of SET. The candidates having Post Graduate diploma/certificate awarded by Indian University/Institute or Foreign degree/diploma/certificate awarded by the Foreign University/Institute should in their own interest, ascertain the equivalence* of their diploma/degree/certificate, with Master's degree of recognized Indian Universities from the Association of Indian Universities (AIU), New Delhi (www.aiu.ac.in).
(* Such candidates who qualify SET will be required to submit an equivalence certificate from AIU, Immediately after the result of the SET examination).


b) The candidates other than SC/ST/OBC/SBC/DT(VJ)/NT/SEBC/Transgender category, who have secured at least 55% marks (without gracing or in Master’s or equivalent examination, are eligible for this test. OBC/SBC/DT(VJ)/NT/SEBC [belonging to non-creamy layer] and SC/ST/ PH/VH/Trans-genders/PwD (PHPhysically Handicapped, VH- Visually Handicapped i.e. Blind), category candidates who have secured at least 50% marks (without gracing or rounding off) in Master’s or equivalent Examination is eligible for this test. The candidates belonging to OBC/ DT (A)(VJ)/ NT (B,C,D)/ SBC/ SEBC must submit a valid category certificate recognized by the Govt. of Maharashtra & Goa. The OBC certificate will not be accepted in lieu of DT(A)(VJ)/ NT(B, C,D)/SBC/ SEBC categories (The OBC certificate is accepted only at the national level for UGC-NET and UGC-CSIR NET in lieu of said categories). The Orphans & EWS candidates must submit an eligibility certificate issued by the competent authority.
c) The candidates who are studying in the first year of two years Masters Course or in the first two semesters of a four-semester course of Master’s Degree or studying in the fourth year of five year Integrated Masters Course are not eligible to appear for this test.
d) The candidates who are pursuing their Master's degree or equivalent course or candidates who have appeared for their qualifying Master’s degree (final year) examination and whose result is still awaited or candidates whose qualifying examinations have been delayed may also apply for this test. However, such candidates will be admitted provisionally and shall be considered eligible for Assistant Professor after they have passed their Master's Degree or equivalent examination with at least 55% marks (50% marks in case of SC/ST/PH/VH and OBC/SBC/DT(A)/NT(B)/NT(C)/NT(D)/ SEBC [belonging to non-creamy layer]/Transgender/PwD. Such candidates must complete their Master's Degree or equivalent examination within two years from the date of SET result with required percentage of marks, failing which they shall be treated as disqualified.
e) The candidates of other States (other than Maharashtra & Goa) belonging to reserved categories shall be treated as Open category, as per the rules of the Maharashtra and Goa States.
f) Candidates can appear for SET in the subject of their Post Graduation only e.g. Commerce:M.Com., Environmental Science: M.Sc. Env. Sci., Life Science: M.Sc. Life Science/Botany/Zoology/Microbiology/ Biotechnology etc., Home Science: M.Sc., M.A. Home Science (Refer Item No. 4 on page 06, for list of SET and P.G. subjects). If a post-graduate subject of any candidate is not included in the list of SET subjects, Such candidates can appear for SET in a related or equivalent subject.
 
g) Candidates should note that their candidature for SET is provisional. It will be deemed final upon verification of eligibility documents, after the declaration of the SET result.
 
h) A candidate who has already qualified SET in a subject, will not be allowed to appear again for SET in the same subject. The candidates violating this rule will be liable for initiating legal action.
i) To apply for the SET, there is no upper age limit.
 
j) As per the U.G.C. rules the candidates who have passed M.Sc. (by Research) are not eligible to appear for the SET
 
k) The SET State Agency will not issue any mark sheet to qualified/non-qualified candidates. Students should note that there is a provision for online verification of the SET result. The SET Unit will issue e-certificate to qualified candidates only on verification of the Eligibility documents immediately after the result of the SET examination.
 
Reservation Policy for SET :
-Reservation policy of the Government of Maharashtra & Goa is applicable to MH-SET. According to this, 13% of the seats are reserved for the category Scheduled Caste(SC), 7% for the category Scheduled Tribe(ST), 19% for the category Other Backward Classes (OBC), 13% of the seats are reserved for the category SEBC, 2% for the category SBC, 3% for the category DT (A) VJ, 2.5% for the category NT(B), 3.5% for the category NT(C), 2% for the category NT(D), belonging to the Non Creamy layer (NCL) only, 10% General-Economically Weaker Section (GEN-EWS), 25% for the category General/unreserved.
-Each category will have 4 (four) % reservations horizontally for Persons with Disabilities (PwD) as defined in the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
-The General Category will have 1(one) % reservation horizontally for Orphans.

for more information visit the official website- 
https://setexam.unipune.ac.in/Home.aspx

Sunday 5 July 2020

Net Anthropology Answer Key 2017



UGC-NET NOVEMBER-2017 PAPER-2ND  

SUBJECT CODE & NAME:- (007) ANTHROPOLOGY


Question no.

Answer

Question no.

Answer

Question no.

answer

          1.

4

18.

3

35.

2

          2.

1

19.

1

36.

4

          3.

2

20.

3

37.

1

            4.

3

21.

1

38.

1

          5.

3

22.

2

39.

2

           6.

2

23.

1

40.

3

          7.

1

24.

4

41.

4

            8.

3

25.

1

42.

2

          9.

4

26.

4

43.

1

       10.

1

27.

3

44.

3

       11.

3

28.

4

45.

2

       12.

1

29.

1

46.

3

       13.

3

30.

1

47.

4

       14.

1

31.

2

48.

2

       15.

2

32.

2

49.

3

       16.

4

33.

3

50.

2

       17.

1

34.

4

*****

 












Thursday 23 April 2020

UGC- NET ECONOMICS JUNE-2019 (SOLVED)


Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow it:
Suppose that for a particular economy for some time period, investment was equal to 100, government expenditure was equal to 75t, net taxes were fixed at 100 and consumption (C) was given by the consumption function: C = 25 + 0.8 YD ,Where YD is disposable income and Y is GDP.
(Questions 1-3)
Q.1. what is the value of tax multiplier (∆Y/∆T)?
A. -2
B. -3
C. -4
D. -5

Q.2.What is the value of government expenditure multiplier (∆Y/∆G)?
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6

Q.3. What is the level of equilibrium income(Y)?
A.600
B. 700
C. 800
D. 850

Q.4. Which of the following is an example of a public good ?
A. Residential building
B. National defence
C. Restaurant meals
D. Swimming pool of a house

Q.5. The excess supply of a commodity above the no-trade equilibrium price given one nation’s?
A. Import demand for the commodity
B. Export supply and import demand for the commodity
C. Export supply of the commodity
D. Import supply of the commodity

Q.6. As income falls, consumption declines but proportionately less than the decrease in income because the consumer desires to sustain previous standard of living. This is called?
A. Ratchet effect  
B. Wealth effect
C. Demonstration effect
D. Income effect

Q.7.Which one is NOT axioms of inequality measures?
A. Principles of scale invariance
B. Principle of equity  
C. Principles of translation invariance
D. Axiom of decomposability

Q.8. Under non- cooperative games, it is :
A. Essential to understand one’s opponent’s point of view
B. Not essential to understand one’s opponent’s point of view
C. Essential to understand one’s opponent’s point of view and to deduce the likely responses accordingly
D. Essential to understand one’s opponent’s likely responses

Q.9. Which of the following statements are true regarding Cobb-Douglus production function?
a) It is long period production function
b) It is short period production function
c) It is based on increasing returns to scale
d) Output elasticities with respect to factors are constant
Select the correct option:
A. (a) & (c)
B. (a) & (d)  
C. (b) & (c)
D. (c) & (d)

Q.10. Which of the following methods of selecting strategies is consistent with risk averting behavior?
A. If two strategies have the same   expected profit, select the one with smaller standard deviation  
B. If two strategies have the same standard deviation; select the one with smaller expected profit
C. If two strategies have the same standard deviation; select the strategy with larger coefficient of variation
D. If two strategies have different expected profits, select the one with the larger standard deviation

Q.11. Match the following
List – I
(a) Various combinations that a consumer  can purchase
(b) Various combinations of two commodities providing equal satisfaction to consumer
(c) A set of indifference curves
(d) Point of tangency of a budget line on an indifference curve
List –II
(i) Indifference map
(ii) Indifference curve
(iii) Budget line
(iv) Consumer’s equilibrium
Choose the correct option from those given below:
A. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
B. a-iv, b-iii, c-I, d-ii
C. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
D. a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d- iv  

Questions.  (12-14)
COMPREHENSION:
DIRECTION: Go through the following paragraph and diagram and answer the questions given below:

Monopoly charges a price above marginal cost, not all consumers who value the good at more than its cost, buy it. Thus, the quantity produced and sold by a monopoly is below the socially efficient level. The deadweight loss is represented by the area of the triangle between the demand curve and the marginal cost curve.



Q.12. which of the socially efficient level of production?
A. OX1
B. OX2
C. AX1
D. CX2

Q.13. Deadweight loss is represented by the area of
A. X1X2CA
B. X1BCX2
C. OX1AE
D. BAC  

Q.14. what price will be charged under monopoly?
A. OF
B. X2C
C. OE
D. OG

Q.15. the inconsistency of which one of the following criteria is labeled as Scitovsky Paradox?
A. Little criterion
B. Pareto criterion
C. Bergson criterion
D. Kaldor-Hicks criterion  

Q.16. General Equilibrium analysis determines
A. Prices & quantities in all markets simultaneously
B. Prices & quantities in all markets simultaneously and explicitly takes feedback effects into account  
C. Feedback effects
D. Prices in all markets

Q.17. The firms are competitive and profit maximizing the demand curve for labour is determined by
A. The opportunity cost of workers’ time
B. The value of marginal product of labour 
C. Offsetting income and substitution effect
D. The value of marginal product of capital

Q.18. Pareto’s marginal condition for efficiency in composition of output (product-mix) requires

A. 1
B. 2
C.3
D.4

Q.19. Why do individuals act in riskier ways after being insured?
A. Due to the problem of adverse selection
B. Due to the problem of false confidence
C. Due to the problem of moral hazard
D. Due to the problem of screening costs

Q.20. The concept of fiscal deficit implies which of the following?
A. Revenue and interest receipts minus revenue expenditures
B. Revenue receipts and recovery of loans and other receipts minus total expenditure  
C. Receipts minus disbursement in capital account
D. Total receipts minus total expenditure

Q.21. Liquidity approach is also known by the name
A. Gurley – Shaw approach
B. Radcliffe approach  
C. Traditional approach
D. Monetarist approach

Q.22. Vertical equity in taxation means that
A. People in different income groups should be taxed equally
B. People in different income groups should be taxed differently  
C. People in different groups should be charged proportionately
D. Unequal people should be treated equally

Q.23. The commodity or Net Barter Terms of trade are represented by the formula

Correct - 4
Q.24. The long term chronic unemployment arising from imbalance between the skills and other charact eristics of workers in the market and the need of employers is known as
A. Cyclical unemployment
B. Frictional unemployment
C. Structural unemployment 
D. Seasonal unemployment

Q.25. According to Marshall – Lerner condition for the foreign exchange market to be stable, the sum of the elasticities of demand for imports and the demand for exports should be
A. Less than 1
B. Equal to zero
C. Equal to 1
D. More than 1  

Q.26. In J. Robinson’s growth model, capital accumulation depends on
A. Savings- income ratio
B. Profit-wage relation and labour productivity  
C. Profit- income ratio and capital productivity
D. Savings- investment ratio

Q.27. Which of the following is NOT the method of debt redemption?
A. Refunding
B. Repudiation  
C. Sinking fund
D. Capital levy

Q.28. A tax is said to be direct,when
A. Impact and incidence fall upon the same person
B. Only incidence falls upon the same  person
C. Impact is shifted to another person
D. Person escapes from paying tax

Q.29. In the Balance of Payment Account, the transfer payments are included in which one of the following?
A. Capital Account
B. Service Account
C. Current Account  
D. Official Reserve Account

30. Which one of the following items is included in the Capital Account of the balance of payment of a country?
A. Investment income
B. Invisibilities
C. Commercial borrowings  
D. Private transfer
Q.31. Which of the following factors is NOT the cause for ‘market failure’?
A. Asymmetric information
B. Public good
C. Externality
D. Lack of demand  

Q.32. ‘Immiserizing growth’ is the term given by
A. Amartya Sen
B. N Kaldor
C. Paul Krugman
D. Jagdish Bhagwati  .

Q.33. In efficiency wage model, the real wage is set to
A. Minimize the efficiency of worker per rupee of real wages received
B. Clear the labour market
C. Not to clear the labour market
D. Maximize the efficiency of workers per rupee of real wages received  

Q.34. Which of the following is NOT the function of a capital market?
A. Mobilizing savings into investment
B. Channelizing funds from less profitable to more profitable
C. Mobilizing funds from surplus units to deficit units
D. Providing better returns to direct investors  

Q.35. Which one of the following growth models takes technology as exogenous variable?
A. Solow model  
B. Robinson model
C. Lucas model
D. Todaro model

Q.36. Three pillars of the Asia –Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) are
(a) Trade and investment liberalization
(b) Business facilitation
(c) Economic and technical cooperation
(d) Military cooperation
Choose the correct option:
A. a,b,d
B. a,b,c
C. a,c,d
D. b,c,d

Q.37. During recession which of the following measures is initiated?
A. Cutting taxes and boosting government spending  
B. Increasing taxes and decreasing government spending
C. Keeping tax rates constant and increasing government spending
D. Increasing tax rates and keeping government spending constant

Q.38. A toll tax is a tax based on which of the following?
A. The benefit principles  
B. Horizontal equity
C. Vertical equity
D. Tax progressively

Q.39. Calculate the rate of effective protection by using the formula g=t-ai×ti/1-ai,here g=0.3, ai = 0.8 and ti= 0, then the value of t is
A. 0.2
B. 0.3
C. 0.1 .
D. 0.4
Note- none of the above (Revised answer None)

Q.40. Match the following
List – I
a) Theory of big push
b) Warranted rate of growth
c) Social dualism
d) Endogenous growth theory
List – II
i) J H Boeke
ii) Paul Romer
iii) Rosenstein Rodan
iv) R F Harrod
Choose the correct option
A. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
B. a-iii, b-I, c-iv, d-ii
C. a-iii, b-iv, c-I, d-ii
D. a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

Q.41. By ‘financial crowding out’ economist mean
A. Credit rationing
B. What the government borrows cannot be used for private investment
C. Government borrowings drive up interest rate  
D. Reserve bank of India controls on commercial bank lendings

Q.42. Direct credit programmes introduced
A. Security – oriented credit
B. Development – oriented credit
C. Purpose- oriented credit  
D. Welfare- oriented credit

Q.43. Which of the following is NOT part of Wiseman and Peacock hypothesis?
A. Concentration effect
B. Displacement effect
C. Inspection effect
D. Taxation effect  

Q.44. Which consideration a commercial bank does NOT keep in mind to manage its assets and liabilities?
A. Liquidity
B. Profitability
C. Solvency
D. Equity  

Q.45. External drains leave which type of impact on commercial bank?
A. Lowers the reserves of bank  .
B. Increase further deposits
C. Increase credit creation
D. Creates demand deposits

Q.46. Assumes that an economy begins in macroeconomic equilibrium, then taxes are significantly decreased. As a result of this change
A. There is expansion and deflation in the economy
B. There is recession and deflation in the economy
C. There is expansion and deflation in the economy  
D. There is stagflation in the economy

Q.47. An increase in money supply will increase the demand for goods and services by
A. Reducing government spending
B. Lowering the interest rate so that investment spending increases  
C. Raising interest rate so that investment spending reduces
D. Increasing government spending on goods and services

Q.48. The provision under the membership clause of the IMF is that any country can become a member if
A. The country is willing to be a member of the World bank and willing to pay
B. The country is willing to be a member of the WTO and willing to pay all subscriptions is glod
C. The country is willing to be a member of the World bank and willing to pay subscription  
D. The country is willing to be a member of UNO and willing to pay subscription

Q.49. Match the following
List-I
(a) ICICI
(b) IRBI
(c) IFCI
(d) IDBI
List – II
(i) 1971
(ii) 1964
(iii) 1955
(iv) 1948
Choose the correct option
A. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
B. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
C. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii.
D. a-iii, b-ii, c-I, d-iv

Q.50. An increase is fiscal spending leads to
A. A shift of Phillips curve to the left
B. A shift of Phillips curve to the right
C. Movement along the Phillips curve such that unemployment rises inflation also rises
D.no option is available (Option not given by NTA)
ANS: Marks is to be allotted to all appearing candidates

Q.51. A foreign exchange risk involves the transaction exposure, the accounting exposure and
A. The translation exposure  
B. The flexibility exposure
C. The rigidity exposure
D. The economic exposure

Q.52. Which is NOT the main objective of credit control?
A. Stabilization of general price level
B. Promoting economic growth
C. Ensuring adequate flow of credit to productive sectors
D. Promoting economic welfare  

Q.53. Match the following
List-I
a) Accelerator and multiplier interaction
b) Cambridge approach
c) Life cycle hypothesis
d) Efficiency wage model
List-II
i) Modigliani, Ando and Brumberg
ii) Akerlof and Yellen
iii) Paul Samuelson
iv) Alfred Marshal and A C pigou
Choose the correct option
A. a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
B. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
C. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
D. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Q.54. According to Marxian analysis the surplus value depends upon
A. Surplus and necessary labour time  
B. Necessary labour time only
C. Surplus labour time only
D. Nominal wage rate

Q.55. The liquidity aggregates are classified as
A. L1,L2 and L3
B. M1,M2 and M3
C. NM3
D. M1, M2, M3 and M4

Q.56. During a depression which of the following policy instruments should be used?
A. Taxes should be increased
B. Taxes are kept unchanged and public expenditure is increased  
C. Public expenditure is reduced
D. There should be a balanced budget

 Q.57. Which one of the following does NOT determine the amount of years of schooling demanded by an individual to qualify for modern job?
A. The wage or income differential
B. The probability of success in finding modern sector employment
C. Opportunity cost of schooling
D. Expansion of health care infrastructure in urban sector  

Q.58. Who among the following is not associated with the endogenous growth theory?
A. Robert Solow  
B. Paul Romer
C. Rebelo
D. Robert Lucas

Q.59. Under which system the central bank is authorized by law to issue a fixed amount of notes against government securities and any excess is to be fully backed by gold/silver?
A. Maximum fiduciary system
B. Minimum reserve system
C. Fixed Fiduciary system  
D. Maximum and minimum fiduciary system

Q.60. The rational expectations hypothesis suggests that the for-casts that people make concerning future inflation rates
A. Consistently over estimates the actual rate of inflation in the future
B. Are always correct
C. Consistently under estimates the actual rate of inflation in the future
D. Are correct on an average but are subject to errors that are distributed randomly  

Direction: consider the following table that given the monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) of eight households and answer the question given below: 
Question (61-63)

61. Estimate of head count ratio in state –A and state – B are
A. State A : 0.375 ; B: 0.375
B. State A : 0.475 ; B: 0.375
C. State A : 0.575 ; B: 0.575
D. State A: 0.385; B: 0.425

Q.62. From the table calculate the estimates of Square Poverty Gap Ratio (SPGR) and then show that the SPGR in state A is
A. Same as in state B
B. Higher than that in state B
C. Lower than that in state B .
D. Significantly different from zero

Q.63. From the table calculate the estimate of Poverty Gap Ratio (PGR) for state A and state B and select the correct option
A. State A : 0.133 ; B: 0.0119
B. State A : 0.153 ; B: 0.0135
C. State A: 0.0133 ; B: 0.119 .
D. State A: 0.0153 ; B: 0.135

Q.64. In an open economy input output model, the viability is examined by
A. Hawkins- Simon conditions
B. Kuhn – Tucker conditions
C. Dickey – fuller test
D. Goldfeld Quandt test

Q.65. When the null hypothesis is there as an equality the level of significance is the probability of making
A. Type –II error
B. Type – I error  
C. Type I & II errors
D. Type I & III errors

Q.66. In 2011 the proportion of urban population was more than 40% in the states of
A. Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Andra Pradesh, Gujarat
B. Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Gurajat, Maharastra
C. Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andra Pradesh, West Bengal
D. Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharastra, Gujarat  

Q.67. A Linear programming problem can be solved by using
A. ARIMA techniques
B. Simplex method  
C. Unit root method
D. None of the above

Q.68. Which age structure is important for demographic dividend?
A. 0-14
B. 15-59
C. 60 and above
D. 0-14 and 60 and above

Q.69. The correct relationship among Arithmetic Mean (AM), Geometric Mean (GM) and Harmonic Mean (HM) is
A. GM = AM + HM
B. AM < HM
C. (GM)2= HM* AM  
D. AM = GM-HM

Q.70. In a two variable (X and Y ) regression analysis, the regression coefficient are bxy= 0.6 and byx= 0.8. If y is dependent variable and x is independent variable, what is the percentage of variations in Y explained by X?
A. 47%
B. 48%
C. 49%
D. 36%

Q.71. The RBI made Indian rupee fully convertible in current account transactions related to goods and services in the year
A. 1985
B. 2002
C. 1994
D. 2011

Q.72. Standard Error (SE) of sample mean  in random sampling from an infinite population or in random sampling with replacement is given by

A. 1
B. 2
C.3
D.4

Q.73. The IRR is the discount rate that equates the project NPV to ____ and benefit- cost ratio to ____
A. 1,0
B. 0,1  
C. 0,0
D. 1,1

Q.74. Difference equation is concerned with
A. Discrete changes  
B. Continuous changes
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

Q.75. Multiplicative Decomposition model is used to
A. Deseasonalise the time series data  
B. Build cost of living index
C. Test a hypothesis
D. Estimate probability

Q.76. Match the following
Type –I
a) Thomas Doubleday
b) Thomas Sadler
c) Leibenstein
d) Herbert Spencer
Type –II
i) Destiny theory
ii) Biological theory
iii) Diet theory
iv) Motivation theory of population growth
Choose the correct option
A. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
B. a-iii, b-I, c-iv, d-ii
C. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
D. a-iv, b-ii, c-I, d-iii

Q.77. “Education as investment in human resources plays an important role among the factors which contribute to economic growth”. This statement was given by
A. New Education policy, 1985
B. Education Commission, 1966  
C. NCERT
D. Supreme Court of India

Q.78. Under TRIPS protection for copyrights is for
A. 20 years after the death of the author
B. 30 years after the death of the author
C. 40 years after the death of the author
D. 50 years after the death of the author  

Q.79. Second National Commission on labour has recommended a three tier system including
A. Lok adalats, labour courts and labour commissions
B. Lok adalats, labour courts and labour relations commissions  
C. Lok adalats, labour courts and judicial courts
D. Lok adalats, labour courts and labour inspectors

Q.80. The ‘Hedonic Price’ method measures the value of environmental assets through
A. Using ‘existence’ of an environmental asset
B. Using linkages between variations of In house prices  
C. Using WTP to value of environmental assets
D. Using WTA TO value of envionmental assets

Q.81. Assertion (A): The share of the non-commodity sector in the national income has been increasing in India
Reason (R): Industry and agriculture have been growing at a relatively slower pace in India
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and R explains (A)  
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but R does not explain (A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

Q.82. Market failure occurs in case of most of the environmental goods, because
A. Environmental goods are rival products
B. Environmental goods are excludable products
C. Environmental goods are non rival in production
D. Environmental goods are non rival and non excludable in consumption  

Q.83. Which of the following is NOT an instrument of capital market with special reference to India
A. Equity share
B. Debenture
C. Gold ETF
D. Commercial paper  

Q.84. Match the following
List – I
a) Gauss – Markov
b) Coefficient of determination
c) H0 : B2 = 0, H1: B2= 70
d) Heteroscedasticity
List-II
i) R^2
ii) One sided test
iii) Goldfeld – Quandt test
iv) BLUE
Choose the correct option
A. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii  
B. a-I, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
C. a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
D. a-iii, b-I, c-ii, d-iv

Q.85. Which of the following items completes the life table?

A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Q.86. What is the equation of corrected birthrate?

A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4

Q.87. Match the following
List –I
a) Skewness
b) Variance
c) Earthquake
d) F –test
List – II
i) Dispersion
ii) Random Variations
iii) Ratio of variances
iv) Lack of symmetry
Choose the correct option
A. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
B. a-iv, b-I, c-ii, d-iii
C. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
D. a-ii, b-I, c-iv, d-iii

Q.88. If AR = 15 MR= 5, the price elasticity of demand is
A. 2.3
B. 1.5
C. 1.75
D. 1

Q.89. In a binomial distribution, the probability of x successes in n trials in any order is given

A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4

Q.90. The cost function of a monopolist is C = 40+ 12X. Write the demand function as P = 60- 3X. What is his profit maximizing output level?
A. 12
B. 11
C. 8  
D. 9

Q.91. “Under some conditions, it makes no difference to efficiency whether the polluter has a right to pollute or the victim has a right to clean air”. This statement is related to the work of:
A. G Hardin
B. R Coase  
C. N Kaldor
D. Julian Simon

Q.92. Applying OLS to simultaneous equations results in the parameters being
A. Inefficient
B. Inconsistent
C. Biased
D. Biased and Inconsistent

Q.93. Match the following
List –I
a) World environment day
b) World wildlife day
c) World water day
d) World population day
List –II
i) 11th July
ii) 5th June
iii) 3rd March
iv) 22nd March
Choose the correct option
A. a- i, b-ii, c-iii, d- iv
B. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
C. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
D. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i  

Q.94

A. 15
B. 16
C. 27
D. 20

Q.95. Which of the following is NOT correct with reference to the service sector of Indian economy?
A. Service sector has the largest share in the GDP
B. Service sector has the largest share in employment  
C. Service sector’s growth has been higher than growth of agriculture sector
D. Productivity per worker in service sector is highest

Q.96. A simultaneous equation model is exactly identified, if
A. Unique numerical values of structural parameters can be obtained  
B. More than one numerical value can be obtained for some of the parameters of the structural equation
C. Unique solution of all structural coefficients is not possible
D. Structural coefficient cannot be estimated

Q.97. National Food Security law covers
A. 65% of rural population
B. 70% of rural population
C. 75% of rural population  
D. 80% of rural population

Q.98. Which of the following is NOT part of the “PM Kisan Samman Nidhi” scheme as announced on 1-02-2019?
A. All farmers having land holdings up to 2 hectares are eligible under the scheme
B. The scheme will be applicable from 1st April, 2019  
C. The government will transfers Rs. 6000 per annum in to the bank account of eligible beneficiaries
D. The money will be given in three equal installments of Rs. 2000 each

Q.99. For a moderately skewed distribution, the value of mode is 10 and value of the median is 20. Then the mean is
A. 15
B. 30
C. 25
D. 35

Q.100.Who propounded optimum theory of  the population?
A. Robbins
B. Dalton
C. Cannan
D. Carr Saunders




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